SSC declared the First Round of Tentative Allocation (FRTA) for the Combined Hindi Translators Examination 2025 on 5 November 2026. 532 candidates are provisionally recommended for Identity Verification.
If you are on that list, the single thing to take from this page is the date: 18 November 2026, in person, at the city of your Regional Office. There is no remote option and no second call.
The deadline, first
The write-up is unambiguous about what happens if you do not turn up:
"The Sliding Process/Identity Verification of selected candidates in FRTA will be conducted at the cities of the concerned Regional Offices on 18.11.2026… Any candidate failing to attend the sliding process physically will be treated as absent and will not be considered for the final result."
The slip is downloadable from the designated login module on ssc.gov.in from 13 November 2026, 5:00 PM onwards. That leaves roughly five days between the slip appearing and the appointment itself, which for candidates travelling across a region is not much — book travel on the strength of the recommendation, not on the strength of the slip.
How the examination got here
| Stage | Date | Outcome |
|---|---|---|
| Paper-I result | 4 November 2025 | 3,642 shortlisted for Paper-II |
| Paper-II conducted | 14 December 2025 | — |
| Paper-II result | 4 June 2026 | Shortlist for PET/PST for Sub-Inspector (Hindi Translator) in CRPF |
| Option-cum-preference window | 8 to 11 September 2026 | 2,724 candidates submitted preferences online |
| First Round of Tentative Allocation | 5 November 2026 | 532 recommended for Identity Verification |
| Sliding process / Identity Verification | 18 November 2026 | In person, at Regional Office cities |
Only the 2,724 candidates who submitted preferences online in September were considered for further selection. The allocation itself is made on merit-cum-preference — the posts you ranked, against your overall performance in Paper-I and Paper-II together.
Category-wise breakup of the 532
| Category | Vacancies | Recommended |
|---|---|---|
| UR | 228 | 228 |
| SC | 82 | 82 |
| ST | 38 | 38 |
| OBC | 137 | 137 |
| EWS | 47 | 47 |
| Total | 532 | 532 |
Every advertised vacancy has been filled at this round. Horizontally, 3 OH, 2 HH, 5 VH and 2 other-PwBD candidates are included within those totals.
One figure in the notes is worth reading closely: the 532 includes 6 SC, 71 OBC and 28 EWS candidates qualifying at the Unreserved standard. That is 105 reserved-category candidates — just under a fifth of the whole list — who scored high enough to be counted against UR vacancies rather than their own category's. It is the same pattern visible in the GD Constable 2026 result, and it means the real reserved-category competition is less severe than the raw vacancy ratio suggests.
Qualifying marks and how ties were broken
Para 16.3 of the examination notice fixed the minimum qualifying marks in Paper-II at 30% for UR, 25% for OBC and EWS, and 20% for all other categories.
Where candidates tied, Para 17 resolved it by applying four criteria in order until the tie broke:
- Total marks in Paper-II
- Total marks in Paper-I
- Date of birth, with older candidates placed higher
- Alphabetical order of names
The second and third criteria are the ones candidates rarely plan for. Paper-II breaks the tie before Paper-I does, and age is an advantage rather than a disadvantage.
What the cut-offs actually look like
The write-up prints the last selected candidate's total, Paper-II marks, Paper-I marks and date of birth for every post code and category. A few UR examples give the range:
| Post code | Vacancies filled | Total marks | Paper-II | Paper-I |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| J25 — the largest UR block | 126 | 215.00 | 84.0 | 131.00 |
| J15 | 18 | 246.75 | 93.5 | 153.25 |
| J20 | 15 | 250.75 | 102.0 | 148.75 |
| S28 | 15 | 256.00 | 105.0 | 151.00 |
| S26 | 4 | 262.75 | 111.5 | 151.25 |
The spread is the story: the lowest UR closing total in the table is 215 and the highest is 262.75, a gap of nearly 48 marks between post codes in the same examination and the same category. Preference order, not raw merit alone, decides which side of that gap a candidate lands on — which is exactly what the merit-cum-preference rule means in practice. The full post-code table, covering every ministry and department from the Railway Board to the Directorate General of Foreign Trade, is in the mirrored write-up below.
The Sliding Mechanism — new, and the reason 18 November exists
Under Para 16.17 of the examination notice, the Commission introduced a Sliding Mechanism by notice dated 3 March 2026. Its stated purpose:
"to ensure maximum filling of vacancies in a given examination cycle, provide fair and merit-based opportunities to candidates and minimize the unfilled vacancies arising from absenteeism of the candidates who are opting for non-joining in the given examination cycle."
It establishes a single round of reallocation for vacancies left unused when recommended candidates do not join. That is why attendance on 18 November is compulsory and why absence is fatal: the whole point of the exercise is to establish, in one sitting, who is actually taking up a post so the rest can be slid to the next candidates in merit order.
Candidates recommended in the FRTA are also directed to the Commission's notice of 8 April 2026 on the Sliding Mechanism and the related notices on the SSC website.
What is still to come
Marks of both shortlisted and non-shortlisted candidates will be uploaded after the final result is declared — not now. The FRTA is an allocation round, not the end of the examination.
All figures from the Commission's write-up declaring the First Round of Tentative Allocation of CHTE-2025, dated 5 November 2026, mirrored below along with the roll-number list. The FRTA was made under the Notice dated 5 June 2025, Corrigendum dated 18 July 2025, Addendum dated 27 June 2026 and the Sliding Mechanism notice dated 3 March 2026.